If mary had nieces and nephews, this would imply she had brothers and sisters.
But there is no mention of whether Mary was an only child or one of several. So this is complete hypothesis, and just a red herring.
Also, if there is (as the above posts would indicate) legitimate question as to the original intent of the word before translation, then it stands to reason that the rest of the book is completely open to selective interpretation, for the same reasons. Original intention being obscure or mistranslated will mean that other passages would merit the same scrutiny.
Which is why I contest that the constructed book we know as The Bible, is most definitely NOT the word of God.
Or is there a selection process which distinguishes between interpretative and verbatim teaching?